Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

"Can God create iron that God cannot bend?" Isn't it unreasonable to ask this about a being believed to have created logic? After all, God can create a logic that we can't understand right now that both are possible at the same time, right?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Scientists Predict a Million-Fold Drop in Oxygen — Here’s What it Means for Earth’s Future - The Daily Galaxy

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

By Adding This Free Carry Bag to Your Cart, The Anker Solix Power Station Drops 50% in Price on Amazon - Gizmodo

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: